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Godfather
03-11-2012, 11:46 PM
If it's illegal for a municipal or provincial government to post signage that exaggerates or lies about what a bylaw says? Would that breach a tort law of some sort?

My example is that there are new signs all over the local parks (that I've been jogging my dog through all my life) saying dogs are not allowed, strictly prohibited, and site a certain bylaw number. I've scoured the wordings, which haven't been changes since 1988, and there's nothing in there except that if they're without owners they'll be seized and that they must be leashed on school grounds and picked up after :-k

Pony
03-12-2012, 02:52 AM
Legally I'm not sure about posting the signs, I would think something could be done about it considering they site a particular bylaw that's not applicable. If you got ticketed for having your dog in the park I would think it would be dismissed in court.